I thought my question was clear. I will try to break it down and simplify it for you. Is an infant who is baptized as an infant justified throughout their adult life as a result of that infant baptism without further action on their part? I am not making any presumptions in my question; I am asking what your presumptions are? I am not looking for a different answer; I am just looking for an answer. Apparently this is too complicated of a question. From: http://www.ncregister.com/daily-news/how-catholicism-contributed-to-the-king-james-bible "How Catholicism Contributed to the King James Bible New Vatican exhibit explains the Church connection to the 400-year-old book of Scripture. EWTN NEWS A new interfaith exhibition that opens this week at the Vatican reveals how the roots of the 1611 King James Bible are almost entirely Catholic, despite the fact that the translation was often viewed as a highpoint of Protestant European culture. “If it had not been for the Catholics of the 1500s, there would be no King James Bible,” exhibition organizer Cary Summers told EWTN News. “Many of the original Bibles that formed the basis of the King James Bible came from Catholic priests. Very few changes were made. The ancient writings that the King James writers actually mimicked and copied were by Catholic priests,” he explained."